There are two seperate sections in this passage that stand out to me, and perhaps only because I am not sure what they mean. The first one is verse 20b: "...If they will not speak according to this word, it is because they have no dawn." What does it mean to not have dawn? The KJV says they do not have the light. Does light or dawn represent understanding? Could it read, "because they have no understanding"? The first, "if they will not speak according to this word..." refers to the word Isaiah recieved from God. I guess this makes sense, then, that if anyone chooses to not speak according to God's word, it is becuase they have no understanding (of his Word)? Hhmmm. Again, this is a little troubling becuase I don't quite understand it.
Verse 2, of chapter 9, is similar in that I do not quite understand it. "But in the latter time he has made glorious the way of the sea, the land beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the nations." How is this to be read, or interpreted? The rest of of the world, i.e. Europe, North and South America, Australia, etc.? Or is it a direct reference to Galilee, from whence Christ came?
Questions are good I guess, they keep you in check so that you don't became a know it all. They keep to studying so that you can learn. But sometimes questions can be so frustrating, especially when the answer is not easily acquired. But God has his reasons for not revealing certain things to us. And this is yet another small insight into his character.
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